AR2 model of short-term interest rates

Multidimensional Stochastic Processes

I modify the Vasicek model to allow for a second-order autocorrelation term to describe the evolution of interest rates. Like in the Vasicek model, interest rate movements are driven by only one source of market risk.

$r_t = \alpha +\beta_1 r_{t-1} +\beta_2 r_{t-2} + \epsilon_t $

$dr_t =(r_t-r_{t-1})dt = \alpha dt +(\beta_1-1) r_{t-1} dt +\beta_2 r_{t-2} dt + \sigma\sqrt{dt} z_t $

Long-term mean r = $\alpha/(1-\beta_1-\beta_2)$

I calculated the Long-term standard deviation as:

$ \sigma_r^2 = \frac {\sigma^2} {1-(\beta_1+\beta_2)^2}$

Appendix 1: Short-term interest rates

Though LIBOR, Euribor, and the federal funds rate are concerned with the same action, i.e. interbank loans, there is an important distinction: the federal funds rate is a target interest rate that is set by the FOMC for implementing U.S. monetary policies.

As of 1 October 2019 the short-term interest rate in Euro is calculated as ESTR. ESTR is a bank borrowing rate that relies on individual daily transactions. That compares with Eonia, a lending rate administered by EMMI that relies on voluntary contributions by banks. ESTR is a volume-weighted trimmed mean of overnight transactions.

ESTR Data http://webstat.banque-france.fr/en/quickview.do?SERIES_KEY=285.ESTR.B.EU000A2X2A25.WT

Bird's Eye View Calibration:

We should be able to obtain the betas through polynomial fitting. The problem is their sum should be subunitary, to achieve stationarity.

$ beta = (beta_1 + beta_2) < 1 $

From the long-term standard deviation we obtain the standard deviation of the market risk factor:

$ \sigma^2 = \sigma_r^2 (1-(\beta_1+\beta_2)^2) = \sigma_r^2 (1-\beta^2) $

From the long-term mean we obtain:

$\alpha = \mu (1-(\beta_1+\beta_2)) = \mu (1-\beta)$

I will assume the betas are proportional to the first and secodn order autocorrelations.

The results do not appear implausible, however, the interesting shape of the ESTR trajectory probably indicates that either the process is not AR2, or that market risk is not normally distributed.

The exceedingly small value of Prob (F-statistic) indicates the AR2 regression is a good fit for the short-term rate. The estimated coefficients are highly significant.